Alleyways To Torah

can this be compared to a similar case of a bar mitzvah between peasach and pesach sheni.

the argumet arises whether the pesach sheni is onlyt for those who wer eobligated the 1st time around and couldnt, or rather its an oppurtunity for ANYone who is chayav he 2nd, whether the purpose be he didnt do the 1st bc he wasnt bar mitzvah or tamei, regardless.

i have seen this dicussed in a few places although i can neither recall, nor have the resources ta hand to go searching. i would start with igros moshe.

i hope this helps you rebbe with your thoughts, since this was not intended as an answer.

anyone else?

round 2:

sefer hachinuch lists the SHCHITA of the korban pesach on the 14th as mitzva #5... and the EATING of the korban pesach on the eve of the 15th as mitzva #6. 2 separate mitzvot!

seeemingly a bar mitzvah in between would surely be required to eat the korban.

maybe to eat it you had to be one who partook of the offering?
But knowing beforehand that the boy would come of age he could surely have been included in the 'joint ownership' during shchita.
a second suggested answer: maybe he's included in the shchita by inclusion under his fathers domain.

RAMBAM
in response/validation to my immediate above answers:
seder korbanot, hilchot korban pesach, perek sheni:

halacha gimmel answers my first answer: the korban can be slaughtered if all the people in the 'joint ownership' are able to eat a kezayit of it. so if one is a katan, zakein, or choleh, if he can eat it he is included and the shchita can take place.

halacha Chet answers my second answer: a man slaughters the korban it includes his sons and daughters that are katanim whether they know about it or not (ie gave him permission).
halacha tet even goes so far to say that a katan who's father schechted a korban on their behalf (which they did not know about, since he can do it without their knowing) and they went ahead and partook of another group's shchita, they are yotzei form their fathers!

so my Q is: why would the group in halacha gimmel include a katan in their group at all since he'll be yotzai with his father's korban and would have to eat of THAT one! this seems to me like it's borderline whether he is Ra'ui L'achila - the condition that is necessary for the gropus korban to be shechted- in that groups korban!

i offer that THIS could be exactly the case that Rebbe has been asking: the katan in halacha gimmel is Ra'ui L'achilah of that group bc when the time comes to eat he is already a bar chiyuva, he'd have to eat from the korban that HE partook of! since this katan IS in fact part of the 'gimmel group' by the time he's required to eat this IS partly his korban to eat form!

by the way, the end of halacha chet says that the father does not have included with hi his gadol sons and daughter unless they know! (ie they gave permission). maybe the gimmel katan never said his father should do it on his behalf (since he doesnt need to at that point!) and went and did one on his own (as halacha tet points out that this deffinately could happen). maybe in this case where the katan didnt say anythign to his fatehr, thus as a gadol he is NOT included in the shcitah of his father and now has no korban of his own to eat?

this only makes me lean more towards the notion that the 'gimmel katan' is one about to become bar mitzvah.

since theyre's still this issue of being yotzei the korban of his fathers since he was a katan at that time, id say that the easiest way to settle things would to have this katan join the group that his father joins! thus solving the problem of which korban does he eat from, whether his own or his fathers, its all the same!

but to answer Rebbe's Question: it seems to me in my humble opinion tha he surely does eat the korban pesach!