Alleyways To Torah

Precisely because it is in the context of תפילה are we allowed to do so. To the best of my knowledge (which is very little so please correct me if I am wrong), a great deal of davening is based on פסוקים. At the same time, however, we only quote parts of פסוקים and/or reword them slightly (e.g., in והוא רחום we make many of the פסוקים, which are normally ביחיד, into רבים, for the context of תפילה). While the question is a little bit more pointed than the example i have brought because it's clear that we are specifically citing a פסוק (we say ושם נאמר) and not just saying תפילה formed out of פסוקים, I still believe the question can be defused by focusing more on the Talmudic principle that Rebbe quoted than on the context in which it appears: isn't it possible that כל פסוק דלא פסקיה משה אנן לא פסקינן only applies to קריאת התורה ברבים? (REferring back to the caveat made above, I am only aware of it being cited in the context of קריאת התורה on ראש חודש and מעמד, so I urge you to correct me if I am incorrect.)

Dear Rav Will
You are fast!!!!
Indeed some acharonim do make such a distinction. See ספר אשי ישראל עמ' רס"א הערה י"ד. Others don't accept that explanation. The gemara does mention it in the context of krias hatora as you correctly pointed out but what is the sevara to be מחלק between that and tefillah? See Pachad Yitzchak - Yom Kippur maamar י"ג who explains why the י"ג מדות would be an exception.

Thanks for your incisive comments!!!